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Re: Does 0.120" really get 9.5:1 compression?

To: "Navarrette, Vance" <vance.navarrette@intel.com>, <RazorBobSr@aol.com>,
Subject: Re: Does 0.120" really get 9.5:1 compression?
From: "Mark Bullard" <mbullard@verizon.net>
Date: Fri, 19 Dec 2003 15:39:17 -1000
Oh...  now I get it...  I think it's time for another egg nog.

Merry Christmas everyone.

Mark Bullard
----- Original Message ----- 



>     Bob:
>
>         Well, lets see:
>
>         Remember that I have a 1974 motor with a stock compression ratio
of
> 7.75:1, so I need to go a looooong ways to get to 9.5:1.
>
>         The milling of the head took the combustion chamber volume to
44.5cc
> (I cc'ed the head to determine how much to remove). The TR6 gasket space
is
> 4.5cc according to David Vizard in "The Theory and Practice of Cylinder
Head
> Modification", so I end up at 49cc for the combustion chamber volume
(CCV).
>
>         The stroke is 3.74", and with the 0.020" overbore the bore is
2.96".
> So one cylinder displaces -
>
>         Pi x R^2 x STROKE
>                     or
>         3.1415 x 1.48^2 x 3.74 = 25.7 cu in, or 421.22 cm^3 (DISP)
>
>     The compression ratio is defined as:
>         CR = (DISP + CCV) / CCV
>                                 or
>         CR - 1 = DISP/CCV, so
>
>     CR - 1 = 421/49 = 8.60
>             and
>     CR = 1 + 8.60, or
>
>     CR = 9.60:1
>
>     Close enough.
>
>     Vance




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