triumphs
[Top] [All Lists]

Re: How much lost acceleration from 3:89 to 3:27 ?

To: Beth & Ken <bethken@erols.com>
Subject: Re: How much lost acceleration from 3:89 to 3:27 ?
From: "Martin A. Secrest" <msecrest@erols.com>
Date: Thu, 29 Jun 2000 14:41:58 -0400
Cc: triumphs@autox.team.net
References: <007501bfe1d8$87a53540$7eceaccf@oemcomputer>
Ken:

This is difficult to answer ... but I have the "cruising" 3:27 diff in my GT6-3
-- and I wish I had the higher ratio version, with the OD tranny.  Before I made
some modifications to my car that helped it to perk up a bit (header, FF
exhaust, elec. ign./fan and Panasports), the car was boggy in the early gears.
That's improved a bit now, but by comparison to my TR6 OD drivetrain, it still
doesn't have the same jump, despite the weight difference between the two cars.

I'm hanging on to my tranny, though, because it's a young NOS item installed by
the PO in perfect condition.  The diff is also perfect.  (Can an OD unit be
simply be added in line with a non-OD tranny?)

--
Martin Secrest
73 GT6
72 TR6

Beth & Ken wrote:

> I've got an overdrive rear end (3:89) in my non-overdrive GT6+. With about
> 4,500 RPM at 70 MPH...well, I'm looking to do a change. My choices seem to
> be changing to an overdrive Triumph tranny (expensive and not as reliable as
> a non-overdrive tranny), the New Zealand Toyota 5-speed conversion
> (expensive, not keeping with tradition...besides, do the Toyota ratios
> closely match Triumphs almost perfect ones?), or going to a 3:27 ratio rear.
> I'm leaning towards the later, because it's the cheapest, most original way
> to go, but I'm wondering how much 0-60 I'm tossing away.
>
> ken shapiro
> baltimore
> 1970 GT6+ KC81872L


<Prev in Thread] Current Thread [Next in Thread>